ITE 8 | IT Essentials 8 – IT Essentials A+ 220-1001 Certification Practice Exam Answers Full 100% 2023

  1. What characteristic best describes a touch screen?

    • an input device that recognizes touch and pressure as instructions
    • an output device used to present information from a laptop onto a screen
    • an output device that uses LED, LCD, or OLED technology
    • a head-mounted device that provides head-motion and eye-tracking sensors and displays three-dimensional images
  2. What characteristic best describes a projector?

    • an output device used to present information from a laptop onto a screen
    • an output device that uses LED, LCD, or OLED technology
    • a head-mounted device that provides head-motion and eye-tracking sensors and displays three-dimensional images
    • an input device often used to provide secure access to locations or devices by using voice, facial, or fingerprint recognition
  3. What characteristic best describes a stylus?

    • a pen-like tool that allows input by touching the surface of the screen
    • an input device that digitizes an image by placing the document on a flat glass surface and scanning from underneath
    • an input device for playing games and flight simulation applications
    • a device that allows the use of one set of keyboard, mouse, and monitor to control multiple computers
  4. What characteristic best describes an AR headset?

    • a head-mounted device that superimposes images and audio over a real world image and can provide users immediate access to information about their real surroundings
    • an input device that digitizes an image by placing the document on a flat glass surface and scanning from underneath
    • an input device for playing games and flight simulation applications
    • a device that allows the use of one set of keyboard, mouse, and monitor to control multiple computers
  5. What characteristic best describes a signature pad?

    • an input device that provides verification of package delivery by digitizing a written name
    • an input device that digitizes an image by placing the document on a flat glass surface and scanning from underneath
    • an input device for playing games and flight simulation applications
    • a device that allows the use of one set of keyboard, mouse, and monitor to control multiple computers
  6. What characteristic best describes a magstripe reader?

    • an input device that reads encoded information from the back of plastic cards
    • an input device that digitizes an image by placing the document on a flat glass surface and scanning from underneath
    • an input device for playing games and flight simulation applications
    • a device that allows the use of one set of keyboard, mouse, and monitor to control multiple computers1
  7. What characteristic best describes a barcode scanner?

    • an input device that reads barcodes affixed to most retail products
    • an input device that digitizes an image by placing the document on a flat glass surface and scanning from underneath
    • an input device for playing games and flight simulation applications
    • a device that allows the use of one set of keyboard, mouse, and monitor to control multiple computers
  8. What characteristic best describes a keyboard?

    • the first type of input device used for creating documents and emails
    • an input device for playing games and flight simulation applications
    • a device that allows the use of one set of keyboard, mouse, and monitor to control multiple computers
    • an input device that recognizes touch and pressure as instructions
  9. What characteristic best describes an NFC device?

    • an input device allowing users to pay for a product by tapping their credit card or smartphone on another device
    • an input device that reads barcodes affixed to most retail products
    • an input device that reads encoded information from the back of plastic cards
    • a pen-like tool that allows input by touching the surface of the screen
  10. What characteristic best describes a mouse?

    • the first type of input device used to navigate the graphical user interface
    • an input device allowing users to pay for a product by tapping their credit card or smartphone on another device
    • an input device that reads barcodes affixed to most retail products
    • an input device that reads encoded information from the back of plastic cards
  11. A technician is building a thick client workstation that would be used to run a database and wants to ensure the best protection against errors. What type of memory would be best suited for this?

    • ECC
    • RDRAM
    • DDR3
    • DDR2
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      RDRAM, DDR2, and DDR3 RAM do not offer any error correction abilities for data within the memory module. ECC RAM allows for the detection of multiple bit errors and correction of single bit errors within the memory modules.

  12. A user has just upgraded a gaming system with 8GB of DDR3 800 MHz RAM and still finds that the system lags during gameplay. The system has a high end graphics card, liquid cooling, and a 7,200 rpm EIDE drive. What can the user do to improve system performance?

    • Change the voltage setting for the RAM.
    • Replace the EIDE drive with an SSD.
    • Replace the liquid cooling system with a high speed ball bearing fan cooling system.
    • Add two more case fans.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Because the system has already has a high end graphics card and a liquid cooling system, it is already optimized for the gaming environment and the introduction of the new additional RAM would add to its performance. The only hardware component that could result in the lag in performance in this scenario is the hard drive, which would perform much faster when replaced with an SSD.

  13. A network administrator would like to use one keyboard, mouse, and display to monitor and control multiple servers in the server room. Which device should the administrator purchase to accomplish this?

    • joystick
    • digitizer
    • KVM switch
    • VR headset
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A keyboard, video, mouse (KVM) switch is a hardware device that can be used to control more than one computer from a single set of devices, often called a console, consisting of a keyboard, video monitor, and mouse.

  14. A user wants to purchase a monitor that will be light, consume the least amount of power, and provide deep dark levels in the display. Which display type would best meet these requirements?

    • plasma
    • LCD
    • LED
    • OLED
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      For monitors of the same Plasma monitors consume the highest amount of power followed by LCD monitors and than LED monitors. Of the different types of LED monitors, OLED monitors will offer the deeper dark levels in the display.

  15. An art appreciation college professor wants to apply for a technology grant to allow students to have a virtual tour of the Louvre Museum in Paris, France. Which mobile technology should the professor request to accomplish this goal?

    • e-reader
    • GPS
    • smart watch
    • VR headset
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A virtual reality (VR) headset can be used in a training situation for educational purposes such as touring a remote location, military training, or medical training. Gaming applications are also popular. A person wears a special headset that projects a slightly different image to each eye, allowing the image to be viewed in 3D. The person may also wear headphones and a microphone depending on the application.

  16. Refer to the exhibit. Match the letter found in the exhibit with the description. (Not all options are used.)

    ITE 8 IT Essentials 8 – IT Essentials A+ 220-1001 Certification Practice Exam Answers 002
    ITE 8 IT Essentials 8 – IT Essentials A+ 220-1001 Certification Practice Exam Answers 002

    ITE 8 IT Essentials 8 – IT Essentials A+ 220-1001 Certification Practice Exam Answers 01
    ITE 8 IT Essentials 8 – IT Essentials A+ 220-1001 Certification Practice Exam Answers 01
  17. Which sequence of steps is required to correctly install a heat sink and fan assembly onto a CPU in a desktop PC?

    • 1. Apply a small amount of thermal compound to the CPU.
      2. Align the heat sink and fan assembly retainers with the holes on the motherboard.
      3. Place the fan and heat sink assembly onto the CPU socket.
      4. Tighten the fan and heat sink assembly retainers to secure the assembly in place.
      5. Connect the assembly power cable to the CPU fan connector on the motherboard.
    • 1. Connect the assembly power cable to the CPU fan connector on the motherboard.
      2. Align the heat sink and fan assembly retainers with the holes on the motherboard.
      3. Place the fan and heat sink assembly onto the CPU socket.
      4. Tighten the fan and heat sink assembly retainers to secure the assembly in place.
      5. Place the correctly aligned CPU gently into the socket.
    • 1. Place the correctly aligned CPU gently into the socket.
      2. Align the heat sink and fan assembly retainers with the holes on the motherboard.
      3. Place the fan and heat sink assembly onto the CPU socket.
      4. Tighten the fan and heat sink assembly retainers to secure the assembly in place.
      5. Connect the assembly power cable to the CPU fan connector on the motherboard.
    • 1. Apply a small amount of thermal compound to the CPU.
      2. Align the heat sink and fan assembly retainers with the holes on the motherboard.
      3. Place the correctly aligned CPU gently into the socket.
      4. Tighten the fan and heat sink assembly retainers to secure the assembly in place.
      5. Connect the assembly power cable to the CPU fan connector on the motherboard.

      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      The CPU must be securely installed in its socket on the mother board before the thermal paste is applied, the heat sink and fan assembly is installed, and the fan is connected to the CPU fan power connector on the motherboard.

  18. Refer to the exhibit. Match the type of expansion slot to the letter shown in the graphic. (Not all options are used.)

    ITE 8 IT Essentials 8 – IT Essentials A+ 220-1001 Certification Practice Exam Answers 001
    ITE 8 IT Essentials 8 – IT Essentials A+ 220-1001 Certification Practice Exam Answers 001

    ITE 8 IT Essentials 8 – IT Essentials A+ 220-1001 Certification Practice Exam Answers 02
    ITE 8 IT Essentials 8 – IT Essentials A+ 220-1001 Certification Practice Exam Answers 02
  19. Which connector would be used for a laptop external hard drive?

    • DVI
    • eSATA
    • PATA
    • SATA
    • S/PDIF
  20. Which three PC desktop functions are typically provided on the front panel and must be connected to the motherboard? (Choose three.)

    • network activity light
    • PC power button
    • drive activity light
    • USB connectors
    • CPU temperature indicator
    • audio power button
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      USB connectors, PC power button, and drive activity light are the most common PC front panel functions. If available, the network activity light, CPU temperature indicator, and audio power button are not typically located on the front panel of the computer.

  21. Which statement is correct about applying firmware updates?

    • Firmware updates are sometimes irreversible.
    • It is possible to use the Roll Back feature to reverse the change.
    • The firmware updates can be installed automatically using the Windows Service Pack utility.
    • Firmware updates should not be included as part of the preventive maintenance program.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Firmware updates can make the hardware unusable if not performed correctly. Sometimes it is not possible to revert to the original firmware once the update has been performed because of how the changes are applied to the EPROM technology.

  22. Which RAID level allows for extension of a dynamic volume without any redundancy?

    • 0
    • 1
    • 2
    • 3
    • 4
    • 5
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A RAID array 0 allows for striping over a variety of disks without providing for any redundancy. This allows for faster read and write functions because they are spread over multiple drives and thus adds the benefit of the simultaneous use of multiple actuator arms of the various hard drives.

  23. A computer technician has recommended a data storage system that combines data striping and parity. The user has a limited budget and is prepared to forego performance to implement this system. Which RAID system would meet these requirements?

    • RAID 0
    • RAID 1
    • RAID 5
    • RAID 0+1
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      RAID 5 best meets the required storage and cost specifications. RAID 0 provides data striping without redundancy. RAID 1 uses disk mirroring and has a high cost. RAID 0+1 combines data striping and mirroring but also has a high cost.

  24. A user has a computer with a single hard drive and a RAID adapter installed. Which additional component is necessary to complete the RAID installation?

    • a USB connection
    • a floppy disk drive
    • one or more additional hard drives
    • a DVD drive
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      RAID installations require two or more hard drives. Floppy drives and DVD drives cannot form part of a RAID array. A USB connector may be used to access external hard drives that are not part of a RAID array.

  25. A user is connecting a home entertainment system and wants to use one cable to carry all the digital video and audio signals from the source device to the LCD TV. What type of cable should the user use?

    • DVI-D
    • HDMI
    • VGA
    • S-Video
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A DVI-D cable will carry video digital signals only, and the S-Video and VGA cable types carry only analog video signals. An HDMI cable will carry both the audio and video digital signals.

  26. A user has connected a USB 3.0 device to a computer using a 3 ft (1m) USB 3.0 cable. However, instead of an expected data transfer rate of up to 5 Gb/s, the user notes a data transfer rate of no more than 450 Mb/s. What is the most probable reason for this lower than expected data transfer rate?

    • The device was connected to a USB 2.0 port on the computer.
    • The cable used exceeds the maximum length that allows USB 3.0 to transfer data at 5Gb/s.
    • The device was connected to a USB 1.1 port on the computer.
    • The USB 3.0 cable is faulty.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      USB 2.0 allows transmission speeds up to 480 Mb/s and USB 1.1 allows transmission rates of up to 12 Mb/s in full-speed mode. A transmission speed of 450 Mb/s would indicate that a USB 2.0 port was used on the computer because USB devices can only transfer data up to the maximum speed allowed by the specific port. The generally accepted maximum length of a USB 3.0 cable is 9.8 ft (3m) which is three times the length of the cable used in this example, so the cable length is acceptable for full USB 3.0 capability. If a USB cable is faulty then no data transfer at all is likely to occur.

  27. What transfers heat away from the processor first?

    • cooling fins
    • thermal compound
    • CPU fan
    • case fans
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Thermal compound is the first item of contact with the CPU, which then dissipates the heat to the cooling fins. The heat is conducted away from the CPU by the CPU fan and finally exhausted through the case fans.

  28. Which design specification criterion is most important when designing a computer that will be a thin client whose applications are accessed from a remote virtual server?

    • amount of RAM
    • amount of local hard drive storage
    • number of processor cores
    • speed of network card
  29. A technician is building a workstation that will be used for virtualization. Which two components would the technician use? (Choose two.)

    • dual monitors
    • high-end graphics card
    • liquid cooling
    • maximum amount of RAM
    • multicore processors
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Dual monitors are useful in a video editing station. Liquid cooling assemblies and high-end graphics cards are normally required in high performance gaming systems. A virtualization workstation would need maximum RAM and CPU cores.

  30. A small company is setting up a new remote satellite office. Employees in the remote office need to access network resources from the main office of the company. An IT manager is deciding whether to deploy thin or thick clients at the remote office. What is the key technical factor to be considered?

    • network sharing requirements
    • RAID level required
    • requirements for the display screens between thin and thick clients
    • internet connection bandwidth between the main and remote office
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Thick clients are standard computers that have their own operating system, applications, and local storage. They are stand-alone systems and all of the processing is performed locally on the computer. On the other hand, thin clients are typically low-end network computers that rely on remote servers to perform all data processing. Thin clients in a remote office will require a reliable, high-bandwidth, internet connection to a server. Typically thin clients do not have any internal storage and have limited local resources.

  31. Which three components would a technician use in building a CAD workstation? (Choose three.)

    • SSD
    • maximum RAM
    • specialized graphics card
    • TV Tuner card
    • high-end sound card
    • Windows 7 Home edition
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A TV Tuner card is normally used for an home entertainment system and a high end sound card is normally used for a gaming system. Windows 7 Home edition would not be the operating system of choice on a CAD station. A CAD station would normally require a specialized graphics card, large amounts of fast RAM, and a high performance storage device, such as SSD.

  32. A customer asks for a solution to a printer problem that is beyond the knowledge level of the technician. What should the technician do?

    • Try to fix the problem anyway.
    • Tell the customer to call the printer manufacturer to fix the problem.
    • Gather as much informatio​n as possible and escalate the problem.
    • Ask the customer to call again when another technician can provide a solution to the problem.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Trying to fix a problem that is beyond the knowledge level of the technician may create additional problems.

  33. After consulting the manufacturer manuals, a technician applies a series of recommended solutions that resolve a problem with a workstation computer. What is the next step in the troubleshooting process that the technician should perform?

    • Verify the solution and confirm full system functionality.
    • Document the findings, actions, and outcomes.
    • Test the theory of probable cause.
    • Determine the next steps to resolve the problem.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      After the recommended solutions have been applied to resolve the problem, full system functionality should be verified and preventive measures implemented if applicable. This would be followed by documenting the solution and actions. Determining the next steps to resolve the problem and testing the theory of probable cause have already been completed in this scenario.

  34. After questioning a user about the problems being experienced with a PC operating system, the support technician suspects that a recent service pack installation has failed. Which step of the troubleshooting process has the technician just concluded?

    • Test the theory to determine the cause of the problem.
    • Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
    • Establish a theory of probable cause.
    • Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      By suspecting that an operating system service pack has failed to install successfully, the technician has established a theory of probable cause of the problem. The next step would be to test the theory to determine the cause of the problem, followed by establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem. Documentation is the final step and would occur after the solution has been verified and the system restored to full functionality.

  35. A computer locks up frequently, and no error message can be seen on screen. The problem occurs every time the user attempts to restart the computer. What is the most likely reason for this problem?

    • The index service is not running.
    • The power supply has failed.
    • A startup file has become corrupted.
    • The CPU is overheating.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      If the power supply has failed the PC would turn off or could display a stop error message if the failure is partial. The index service not running does not cause a PC to lockup. No startup file is likely to be corrupted as the issue appears during normal operation. An overheading CPU would cause the computer to lockup.

  36. A technician suspects that a power supply is faulty. How can it be checked?

    • by checking the temperature of the power supply
    • by using a multimeter
    • by taking apart the power supply
    • by powering up the PC after disconnecting each connector in turn
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      The temperature of the power supply does not indicate if it is operational. A PC technician should never open a power supply as dangerous voltages might still be present even when disconnected. Disconnecting the connectors in turn and powering the PC is not a recommended practice. In the absence of a power supply tester, a multimeter can allow to check if voltages are present.

  37. What are two possible causes of a computer running slowly? (Choose two.)

    • The hard drive has been partitioned.
    • The computer is overheating.
    • The CPU has been overclocked.
    • The RAM is not compatible with the motherboard.
    • Not enough RAM is installed in the system.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Not having enough RAM or the computer overheating can cause a computer to run slowly. An overclocked CPU would tend to speed up the computer. If the RAM is not compatible with the motherboard, the computer would not start up. Partitioning a hard drive does not cause the computer to run more slowly.

  38. Which type of network consists of several geographically dispersed networks that cover a large area?

    • LAN
    • WAN
    • PAN
    • SAN
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A Wide Area Network (WAN) is a collection of geographically dispersed networks.
      A Local Area Network (LAN) is a network contained in a single floor, building, or campus.
      A Personal Area Network (PAN) is a network that reaches at most 10 meters.
      A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a network specifically constructed to connect storage devices to each other.

  39. A user is setting up a home wireless network. Which type of device must the user have in order to establish the wireless network and provide access to the internet for multiple home devices?

    • hub
    • wireless router
    • switch
    • patch panel
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A wireless router connects multiple wireless devices to the network. It will then aggregate the internet access requests from home devices to the internet.

  40. A customer who travels frequently wants to know which technology is the most suitable for being connected to the corporate network at all times at low cost. Which network technology would a network administrator recommend?

    • satellite
    • ISDN
    • cellular
    • microwave
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Cellular networks can provide access to data networks at any given time. ISDN and microwave networks require a fixed location. Satellite would work, but is very expensive.

  41. Which device converts digital signals to analog signals and vice versa?

    • hub
    • switch
    • modem
    • router
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Modems are used to connect computers to POTS analog lines. Hubs, routers, and switches work using digital signals at all times.

  42. A tourist is traveling through the countryside and needs to connect to the internet from a laptop. However, the laptop only has Wi-Fi and Ethernet connections. The tourist has a smartphone with 3G/4G connectivity. What can the tourist do to allow the laptop to connect to the internet?

    • Enable tethering and create a hotspot.
    • Use an Ethernet cable to connect the smartphone to the laptop.
    • Use the smartphone to access web pages and then pass the web pages to the laptop.
    • Use the smartphone to access the internet through a satellite connection and then share that connection with the laptop.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Many cell phones have the ability to connect to other devices through a feature called tethering. The connection can be made using Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, or a USB cable. Once a device is connected, it is able to use the cellular connection of the phone to access the internet. When a cellular phone allows Wi-Fi devices to connect and use the mobile data network, this is called a hotspot.

  43. Match the port number or numbers to the protocol. (Not all options are used.)

    ITE 8 IT Essentials 8 – IT Essentials A+ 220-1001 Certification Practice Exam Answers 03
    ITE 8 IT Essentials 8 – IT Essentials A+ 220-1001 Certification Practice Exam Answers 03
  44. Which protocol automates assignment of IP addresses on a network, and which port number does it use? (Choose two.)

    • DHCP
    • DNS
    • SMB
    • 53
    • 67
    • 80
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      DNS uses port 53 and translates URLs to IP addresses. SMB provides shared access to files and printers and uses port 445. Port 80 is used by HTTP. HTTP is a protocol used to communicate between a web browser and a server.

  45. A technician wants to use Remote Desktop to configure another PC. Which firewall port on the remote PC should be open in order for Remote Desktop to work?

    • 23
    • 115
    • 443
    • 3389
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Port 23 is used for Telnet, port 115 is used by Simple File Transfer Protocol, and port 443 is used by HTTPS. Port 3389 is used by the RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) to connect to other PCs remotely.

  46. A network administrator is setting up the wireless network in a small office. The administrator wants to choose a wireless protocol standard that takes advantage of 5 GHz throughput but is also compatible with a few existing devices that operate at 2.4 GHz. Which wireless standard should the administrator deploy?

    • 802.11a
    • 802.11b
    • 802.11g
    • 802.11n
    • 802.11ac
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      802.11n operates at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz and is backward compatible with 802.11b and 802.11g. 802.11b and 802.11g operate at 2.4 GHz only. 802.11a and 802.11ac operate at 5 GHz only.

  47. A network administrator is setting up a device for two objectives. The first objective is to store frequently visited web content on the device so that the local users can access the content quickly. Another objective is to achieve a certain level of network security by hiding the internal IP addresses. Which device should the administrator set up?

    • firewall
    • web server
    • proxy server
    • authentication server
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A proxy server has the authority to act as another computer. A popular use for a proxy server is to act as storage or cache for web pages that are frequently accessed by devices on the internal network. In addition, a proxy server can effectively hide the IP addresses of internal hosts because all requests going out to the internet are sourced from the IP address of the proxy server.

  48. A small company is setting up a web server to promote products on the internet. The company network administrator is searching for an online service that can provide the domain name and name resolution services. Which type of online service can provide such functions to the company?

    • web service
    • DHCP service
    • proxy service
    • DNS service
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      An online DNS service can provide domain name registration and name resolution for the registered domain services. This service eliminates the need for setting up a fully functional DNS server in the small company.

  49. Which networking device transmits data to all ports regardless of the destination address?

    • router
    • switch
    • hub
    • firewall
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      The purpose of a hub is to extend the cabling range by regenerating and repeating signals. Switches,routers, and firewalls send data to the destination by examining the header of the packet to determine the exit ports.

  50. Which device will prevent data from flooding out of every port with the exception of broadcast traffic and traffic to unknown destination addresses?

    • modem
    • hub
    • router
    • switch
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A switch will select the outgoing port for every data frame based on the MAC destination address. A hub will flood all ports with any traffic. A router will select the outgoing port based on the IP destination address and the modem is used to connect the LAN to a WAN.

  51. What are plenum rated cables used for?

    • for cables that are used between buildings
    • for cables that are installed inside the floors and ceilings of buildings
    • for cables that are used to connect workstations to wall sockets
    • for cables that are used to connect computers back-to-back
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      In case of a fire, a nonplenum rated cable could carry the fire from one part of a building to another. Plenum rated cables contain special plastic material that retards fire and produces less smoke when subjected to high temperature. These make them suitable to install in areas where air is circulating.

  52. Which tool is more commonly used to check the wire mapping on a Category 5e UTP cable once it is terminated on both ends?

    • cable tester
    • tone probe
    • multimeter
    • osciloscope
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      The most commonly used tool to check the wire mapping on a UTP cable is a cable tester. The multimeter is more commonly used to check voltages. A tone probe is more commonly used for cable identification. The osciloscope is more commonly used to test signals.

  53. A technician is troubleshooting a PC unable to connect to the network. What command should be issued to check the IP address of the device?

    • tracert
    • ping
    • nslookup
    • ipconfig
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      The commands tracert and ping are used to test the connectivity of the PC to the network. The command nslookup initiates a query to an Internet domain name server.
  54. Which feature will assign a computer an IP address even if there is no working DHCP server in the network?

    • DNS
    • ARP
    • WINS
    • APIPA
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      APIPA is Automatic Private IP Addressing. If there is no working DHCP server, the computer will use a random IP address from the 169.254.X.X class B range. ARP, WINS, and DNS serve other networking purposes.

  55. When a wireless network in a small office is being set up, which type of IP addressing is typically used on the networked devices?

    • public
    • private
    • network
    • wireless
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      In setting up the wireless network in a small office, it is a best practice to use private IP addressing because of the flexibility and easy management it offers.

  56. In setting up a small office network, the network administrator decides to assign private IP addresses dynamically to workstations and mobile devices. Which feature must be enabled on the company router in order for office devices to access the internet?

    • QoS
    • NAT
    • UPnP
    • MAC filtering
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Network Address Translation (NAT) is the process used to convert private addresses to internet-routable addresses that allow office devices to access the internet.

  57. A company is deploying a wireless network in the distribution facility in a Boston suburb. The warehouse is quite large and it requires multiple access points to be used. Because some of the company devices still operate at 2.4GHz, the network administrator decides to deploy the 802.11g standard. Which channel assignments on the multiple access points will make sure that the wireless channels are not overlapping?

    • channels 1, 5, and 9
    • channels 2, 6, and 10
    • channels 1, 6, and 11
    • channels 1, 7, and 13
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      In the North America domain, 11 channels are allowed for 2.4GHz wireless networking. Among these 11 channels, the combination of channels 1, 6, and 11 are the only non-overlapping channel combination.

  58. A support desk technician is asking a customer a series of questions about a problem connecting to the network. Which step of the troubleshooting process is the technician applying?

    • Identify the problem.
    • Establish a theory of probable cause.
    • Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
    • Test the theory to determine cause.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Before any solutions can be proposed or tested, the problem must first be identified. This is done by gathering information from the customer by asking questions and clarifying details of the problem.

  59. What is a result when the DHCP servers are not operational in a network?

    • Workstations are assigned with the IP address 0.0.0.0.
    • Workstations are assigned with the IP address 127.0.0.1.
    • Workstations are assigned with IP addresses in the 10.0.0.0/8 network.
    • Workstations are assigned with IP addresses in the 169.254.0.0/16 network.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      When workstations are configured with obtaining IP address automatically but DHCP servers are not available to respond to the requests, a workstation can assign itself an IP addresses from the 169.254.0.0/16 network.

  60. A user complains to a technician that none of the apps that use a GPS are working properly. What should the technician do first if the GPS function is suspect?

    • Replace the gyroscope.
    • Calibrate the gyroscope.
    • Replace the GPS antenna.
    • Ensure the Location setting is enabled.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A global positioning system (GPS) is used for geographic location, navigation, and specialized search results. Both iOS and Android devices have a Location or Location services setting to control whether the GPS is turned on. The WiFi/GPS antenna may need to be replaced if the location service is turned on but GPS still does not work.

  61. A teenager has asked the grandparents for a specific type of mobile technology. The grandparents do not remember the specific name of the device, but remember that the teenager wants to receive a cell phone call on it. Which technology is likely to be the one the teenager wants?

    • e-reader
    • GPS
    • smart watch
    • VR headset
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A smart watch commonly has many of the same functions of a smart phone such as receiving/placing calls, playing online games, and using applications such as a calculator or geolocator.

  62. What are the two widths of internal hard drives in laptops? (Choose two.)

    • 1.8 inches
    • 2.5 inches
    • 3.5 inches
    • 5.25 inches
    • 3.8 inches
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Laptop hard drives are 1.8 inches or 2.5 inches in width. Desktop hard drives are 3.5 inches in width. 5.25 inches is the width of optical drives in desktop computers. No components have a width of 3.8 inches.

  63. Where is the integrated Wi-Fi antenna typically located in a laptop?

    • on the keyboard
    • on the system board
    • integrated into the wireless card
    • above the screen
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      The integrated Wi-Fi antenna is typically located above the screen and is connected to the wireless card by an antenna wire which is located along the sides of the screen.

  64. Because of limited space on a laptop keyboard, some keys have a dual-purpose. What are these keys called?

    • control keys
    • alternate keys
    • special purpose keys
    • function keys
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Special function keys allow the user to access a second function on a dual-purpose key by pressing the Function (Fn) key at the same time the dual-purpose key is pressed.

  65. On a laptop keyboard, which three functions can typically be accessed through the use of special function keys? (Choose three.)

    • volume settings
    • wireless functionality
    • display brightness
    • Windows Start menu
    • Task Manager
    • Control Panels
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Volume settings, wireless functionality, and display brightness usually can each be accessed by pressing the Function (Fn) key along with the appropriate dual-purpose key on the keyboard. The Windows Start menu is accessed by pressing the Windows key. Task Manager is accessed by pressing Ctrl-Shift-Esc. Control Panel is accessed by pressing the Windows key + the letter C.

  66. Which three components can a docking station make available to a laptop that a port replicator does not? (Choose three.)

    • PS/2 ports
    • additional hard drive
    • additional optical drive
    • USB ports
    • PCI cards
    • networking ports
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      USB ports, PS/2 ports, and networking ports are found on both port replicators and docking stations. Only docking stations have the ability to connect a laptop to PCI cards, additional hard drives, and optical drives.

  67. Which laptop component is required to be replaced or upgraded by a technician rather than by a computer user?

    • inverter
    • RAM
    • hard drive
    • battery
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      RAM, a hard drive, and a battery are all CRUs and can be replaced by the customer. A power inverter is a FRU and requires specialized expertise to replace and should be done by a technician.

  68. For mobile devices, what are two advantages of using flash memory storage technology that is the equivalent of solid state drives? (Choose two.)

    • light weight components
    • power efficiency
    • ease of upgrading
    • high capacity
    • flash memory storage is field-serviceable
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      The light weight and power efficiency of flash memory components are advantages of using the equivalent of a solid state drive for storage in mobile devices. Flash memory typically does not have the capacity of magnetic storage devices such as hard disk drives. To reduce weight, mobile devices typically do not contain discrete SSD units and the individual flash memory components that are used are not field-serviceable and cannot be upgraded.

  69. A teenager is using a remote control unit to control a TV set. Which wireless technology is most likely being used?

    • IR
    • NFC
    • hotspot
    • Bluetooth
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Infrared (IR) is a wireless connection technology. It can be used to control other IR-enabled devices remotely, such as a TV, set-top box, or audio equipment.

  70. Which two mobile device components are field replaceable? (Choose two.)

    • touch screen
    • SIM card
    • internal SSD
    • battery
    • accelerometer sensors
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Mobile devices do not typically have any field serviceable components. Field replaceable components are usually limited to the battery, the SIM card, and a memory card.

  71. Which two methods are used to directly connect mobile devices such as tablets and smartphones to a data network? (Choose two.)

    • WiMax
    • cellular communications
    • Bluetooth
    • wired Ethernet
    • Wi-Fi
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Mobile devices connect wirelessly to data networks using either Wi-Fi or a telecommunication provider cellular network. Bluetooth is used to connect to peripherals or other local devices over very short distances. Ethernet is a wired network access technology and is not used by mobile devices. Mobile devices do not typically implement WiMAX technology.

  72. A computer technician has successfully returned a laptop to full operation and verified system functionality. Actions the technician performed included modifying the registry and applying patches to the operating systems. What is the next step in the troubleshooting process that the technician should do?

    • Reboot the computer.
    • Document the solution.
    • Consult manufacturer manuals and repair logs.
    • Re-attach and test all peripherals.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      The technician is ready to conclude the troubleshooting process by documenting the solution. The manufacturer manuals and repair logs would be consulted to establish a plan of action and resolve the problem before the solution has been applied. Rebooting the computer, and re-attaching and testing all peripherals, would occur during the testing and verification stage after the solution has been implemented.

  73. A user notices that there is intermittent wireless connectivity on a laptop that is running a wireless PCI Express Micro card using the wireless 802.11n standard. What should the user do to fix the problem?

    • Replace the PCI Express Micro card with a Mini-PCIe card.
    • Replace the PCI Express Micro card with a Mini-PCI card.
    • Move the laptop to a new location.
    • Replace the OS on the laptop.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      In this situation the intermittent loss of wireless connectivity could be due to the distance from the access point or some obstruction in the signal path. Moving to a new location would remedy the problem. Replacing the wireless PCI Express Micro card or replacing the OS will not resolve the problem.

  74. A technician connects a new LCD monitor for the first time and finds the display very pixilated. What is a possible solution to this problem?

    • Set the screen to native resolution.
    • Change the monitor video connector from DVI to HDMI.
    • Power cycle the monitor.
    • Set the screen resolution to VGA.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      The native screen resolution is the optimum design resolution for the monitor and using this should resolve any display issues. Changing the type of video connector and power cycling the monitor is unlikely to resolve this problem. If the display is pixilated, it is most likely at VGA resolution.

  75. A sales representative returns to the office and connects the laptop to an external display device. The display device is powered on, but the laptop image is not showing on the display device. What are two things that should be checked? (Choose two.)

    • The laptop is not in sleep mode.
    • The video cable is firmly connected.
    • The screen refresh rate is set correctly.
    • The LCD backlight is properly adjusted.
    • The laptop is sending the video signal to the external device.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      For an external display device to display a laptop screen, the video cable should be connected firmly on both ends. In addition, the laptop needs to send the video signal to the display device.

  76. Which mode would be best suited for a laptop that is displaying oversized images and icons?

    • native
    • XGA
    • VGA
    • SVGA
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Native resolution will provide the optimal resolution supported by the display on a laptop.

  77. A user complains that the image on a laptop looks dull and pale. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

    • The screen refresh rate is set incorrectly.
    • The display properties are set incorrectly.
    • The inverter is damaged or malfunctioning.
    • The LCD backlight is not properly adjusted.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      The problem of a laptop screen that looks dull and pale is most likely caused by an improper LCD backlight setting.

  78. A user complains that the laptop display is flickering. Which two problems could cause this situation? (Choose two.)

    • The track pad is dirty.
    • Power to the pixels has been cutoff.
    • The screen refresh rate is set incorrectly.
    • The inverter is damaged or malfunctioning.
    • The LCD backlight is not properly adjusted.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      The problem of a flickering laptop display is most likely caused by the image not refreshing fast enough or by a malfunctioning/damaged inverter.

  79. There is a shared laptop in the conference room of a company. One day an employee turns on the laptop to prepare for joining a videoconference. However, the image on the laptop display is pixilated. What should the user do first to correct the problem?

    • Calibrate the LCD backlight.
    • Adjust the screen refresh rate.
    • Set the display to native resolution.
    • Set the display to the lowest resolution.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      The native resolution would provide the best image display. In this scenario, the user should try the native resolution first and then adjust to other resolution options if needed.

  80. What process takes place in a laser printer after the drum is conditioned for the new latent image?

    • charging
    • exposing
    • developing
    • fusing
    • transferring
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      The drum is conditioned for the new latent image during the charging step.
      The printing process involves seven steps for a laser printer:

      1. processing
      2. charging
      3. exposing
      4. developing
      5. transferring
      6. fusing
      7. cleaning
  81. What type of printer requires the ribbon to be changed when producing faded and light characters?

    • inkjet
    • impact
    • laser
    • thermal
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Inkjet, laser, or thermal printers do not use ribbons.

  82. What is an advantage of using a printer that is connected to a hardware print server compared with a computer-shared printer?

    • A computer that shares a printer always allows for faster printing of documents.
    • A hardware print server is always available to all users.
    • A computer that shares a printer always prioritizes the printing tasks.
    • A hardware print server will have more memory to store the print job than a computer will have that shares a printer.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A PC sharing a printer is usually running multiple tasks simultaneously besides printing and is therefore slower to process and send documents to the printer. A disadvantage of hardware print servers is that they frequently contain less storage space for the print queue compared with a dedicated print server or a computer-shared printer.

  83. A technician wants to allow many computers to print to the same printer, but does not want to affect the performance of the computers. What will the technician do to achieve this?

    • Use a software print server.
    • Use a computer-shared printer.
    • Use a hardware print server.
    • Install a second printer.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A hardware print server allows many users to print to the same printer without using the resources of any computer. A computer-shared printer uses a computer to manage all of the print jobs. There is no software print server. Installing a second printer would reduce the print jobs on any one computer, but would still use computer resources.

  84. A user is reporting that an inkjet printer is printing colors different from what the printer should be printing. The printer has separate cartridges for each color and the user changed the cyan cartridge recently. What is the action that could fix the problem?

    • Perform a printer head cleaning.
    • Check for loose printer cables.
    • Use a different type of paper.
    • Purchase a maintenance kit.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A head cleaning routine is needed if the cartridges get clogged or if they are new. Typically, inkjet printers print different colors if one of the cartridges is not able to function properly.

  85. Which two field replaceable units could be found in a laser printer maintenance kit? (Choose two.)

    • fuser assembly
    • pickup rollers
    • power supply
    • paper trays
    • drum
    • toner cartridge
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Usually, manufacturers include in the maintenance kits the parts that are subject to wear. Such parts could be a fuser assembly, transfer rollers, separation pads, and pickup rollers. Power supplies, and drum and paper trays are considered replacement parts that are changed at the time of failure, whereas the toner cartridge is considered a consumable.

  86. What is best used to clean the heating element on a thermal printer?

    • mild solvent
    • soap foam
    • isopropyl alcohol
    • distilled water
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Cleaning the heating element regularly with isopropyl alcohol will extend the life of the printer. Using any of the other substances could damage the printer.

  87. A user reports that a computer is unable to print on an inkjet printer. The technician has determined that there is no paper in the paper bin. What is the next step in the troubleshooting process?

    • Establish a plan of action.
    • Determine the exact cause.
    • Verify system functionality.
    • Document the findings.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      What the technician just did was to determine the exact cause. What is next in the troubleshooting process is to establish a plan of action.

  88. A user reports that a laser printer is printing shadow images and letters. Which part should the technician replace to correct this problem?

    • network cable
    • pick up roller
    • drum
    • fuser
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      The drum is a metal cylinder that holds an electrostatic charge to pick up the toner powder. If the drum is defective, then the charge on the cylinder will not hold the correct latent image to attract the toner.

  89. A technician is called to work on a laser printer that prints vertical lines on every printed page. Which laser printer part should be checked first?

    • pickup rollers
    • RAM
    • toner cartridge
    • wiper blade
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A vertical line could be a sign of a faulty drum or a problem with the toner cartridge. The toner cartridge is the easiest one to test if it is faulty and can be reused later if it turns out to not be the problem.

  90. A technician is called to troubleshoot a problem where a user claims that none of the print jobs from this morning have printed. The technician sees that there is only one printer installed in the device list and it is a network printer shared with other users. What should the technician check?

    • the print queue
    • the IP address of the printer
    • the fuser assembly
    • the user rights to the printer
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A networked printer might have a backed up print queue caused by the printer being offline, out of paper, or a paper jam. There might also be a document stuck in the print queue causing all of the others after it to not print. Check the printer for any issues first then check the print queue and see if sending a different document to the top of the queue or canceling the document at the top of the queue frees up the printer.

  91. A user reports that a “Document failed to print” message appears every time the network printer is restarted. What could be a cause of the problem?

    • The fuser is faulty.
    • The IP address on the printer is statically assigned.
    • The user rights to the printer have been configured incorrectly.
    • The IP address assigned to the printer is a duplicate IP address.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Networked printers are commonly assigned a static IP address. A DHCP reservation can be made and the MAC address of the printer can be entered at the DHCP server so that the printer receives the same IP address each time, or a technician can just manually enter an IP address into the printer. Each device must have a unique IP address, and a duplicate one would cause a network printer to not function.

  92. What are two functions of hypervisors? (Choose two.)

    • to partition the hard drive to run virtual machines
    • to protect the host from malware infection from the virtual machines
    • to manage virtual machines
    • to allocate physical system resources to virtual machines
    • to share the antivirus software across the virtual machines
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      The hypervisor does not protect the hosting OS from malware. Neither does it allow sharing software across virtual machines. The hard drive of the supporting computer does not need to be partitioned to run virtual machines. The hypervisor creates and manages virtual machines on a host computer and allocates physical system resources to them.

  93. A computer technician is asked to configure a workstation with two virtual machines. What would be the purpose of the configuration?

    • to have redundancy in case of hard drive failure
    • to increase the performance of the computer
    • to have two separate operating systems running at the same time on one computer
    • to allow multiple applications, that require more RAM than is installed, to be active simultaneously
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      In the process of virtualization, virtual machines are created. Different operating systems can be installed on each virtual machine without interfering with one another.

  94. A computer technician creates a virtual environment. Which security measure should the technician take for the virtual machine running Windows 10, if any?

    • Each virtual machine should have antivirus software installed.
    • Because each virtual machine contains an operating system that is different from what is on the host computer, no security software is needed.
    • A hardware firewall should be placed between each virtual machine and the internet or it will be necessary to ensure that the Windows firewall is enabled on each virtual machine.
    • The virtual machine must use the same secure passwords as the host computer uses.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Virtual machines are susceptible to the same security threats that a host computer is. All security measures that are recommended for a computer in a home or business environment should also be taken within the virtual environment.

  95. Which two minimum requirements should be met for a technician to enable Hyper-V on a Windows 10 computer? (Choose two.)

    • 4 GB RAM
    • 8 GB RAM
    • 16 GB RAM
    • 32-bit operating system
    • 32- or 64-bit operating system
    • 64-bit operating system
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Windows Hyper-V in Windows 10 has the following minimum requirements:64-bit operating system
      BIOS virtualization support and hardware enforced data execution prevention
      4 GB RAM
      Windows 10 Enterprise, Pro, or Education editions
      CPU support for VM Monitor Mode Extension (VT-c on Intel CPUs)

  96. A technician is setting up a new VM. How will internet connectivity be provided to the VM?

    • through an IPsec tunnel
    • through a virtual private network
    • through a virtual NIC that connects through the host computer NIC
    • through port forwarding configuration on the firewall of the operating system used within the VM
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      In creating a virtualized environment, the hypervisor creates a virtual NIC that works with the host physical NIC. It virtualizes the network resource to be shared with all VM virtual NICs in providing network connectivity.

  97. Which component would be required when deploying a virtual desktop to a corporate user?

    • metered service
    • minimum of 6 GB of RAM
    • SSD
    • virtual NIC
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A virtual desktop is one where the desktop and all applications are run from a server. A virtual desktop uses a virtual NIC.

  98. What would a technician require in order to install a hypervisor on a client machine?

    • an SSD
    • multiple storage drives
    • a server housed by a cloud service provider
    • virtualization software
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A hypervisor is used to create a virtual machine (VM). The hypervisor can be part of an operating system such as Windows Hyper-V or it can be downloaded from a virtualization vendor such as VMWare or Oracle.

  99. Which character of the Cloud model provides easy monitoring, controlling, reporting, and billing for both the provider and customers?

    • rapid elasticity
    • resource pooling
    • measured service
    • broad network access
    • on-demand self-service
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      With measured service of the Cloud model, the resource usage can be easily monitored, controlled, reported, and billed to provide full visibility to both the Cloud service provider and customers.

  100. A company uses cloud services and is setting up a new switch supplied by the cloud provider. Which cloud model is used by the company?

    • DaaS
    • IaaS
    • PaaS
    • SaaS
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Whenever a company has an infrastructure device like a router or switch in the company cloud solution, the cloud model being used is IaaS.

  101. A company owns servers for a particular corporate application. The servers are housed in an external data center. The company has an agreement with a cloud provider to spin up additional servers for the same application during peak usage. Which cloud model is the company using?

    • community
    • hybrid
    • private
    • public
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      A private cloud is a cloud-based service where the company manages the devices or applications within the cloud. They are just located away from the business at a provider site. If a company is using a public cloud, a provider manages the devices or the applications or both for the company. A hybrid cloud is a combination of two types of clouds, and a common practice is a private and public cloud combination.

  102. What is meant by a cloud service being metered?

    • The company is charged a monthly or annual fee for a specific service.
    • The company is charged based on the amount of service used.
    • The company is allowed unlimited access to a service during specific periods of time.
    • A special device is attached to the demarcation point where the service provider network ends and the company network starts.
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      An unmetered cloud service is one where the service is free or it is charged on a monthly or annual basis. A metered cloud service has the charge based on how much the service is used. A company can also have an unmetered service up to a particular point and then the company is assessed additional charges based on how much additional services the company used.

  103. A company has a few employees that are designers. The designers do not have the CAD application loaded on their local computer. Instead, the designers use a CAD application hosted by the application developer. Which type of virtualization is the company using?

    • DaaS
    • IaaS
    • PaaS
    • SaaS
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing type that provides access to one or more applications through a server. This server is not owned or managed by the company using the application.

  104. A Windows 10 computer has several printers configured in the Control Panel Devices and Printers window. Which printer will the computer choose to be the first option for printing?

    • the printer that is set as the default printer
    • the software-based printer that is used to create PDF files
    • the software-based printer that is used to create XPS files
    • a manual selection, which is always needed
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      The Default Printer option is set globally and will be the first printer to print a job unless another printer is selected in a Per-Document manner. Software-based printers are just instances of different kinds of printers, but to be chosen to do the job, they will need to be selected as a default or Per-Document printer. Selecting a printer every time a printing job sends is not needed.

  105. What problems can be resolved by implementing QoS and traffic engineering protocols in an enterprise VoIP network?

    • excessive latency and jitter
    • unexpected infrastructure disruptions
    • excessive noise and interference
    • the inability to transfer calls
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Deploying QoS (Quality of Service) and traffic engineering protocols on an enterprise network can resolve problems of excessive latency (data transmission delay) and jitter (excessive variation in delay). Unexpected infrastructure disruptions, excessive noise and interference, and the inability to transfer calls are IP telephony configuration or physical layer problems that the deployment of QoS and traffic engineering protocols cannot resolve.

  106. Which two devices commonly make use of Power over Ethernet (PoE)? (Choose two.)

    • IP phones
    • wireless access points
    • network printers
    • network storage devices
    • wireless speakers
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      IP phones and wireless access points commonly use Power over Ethernet (PoE). Network printers and storage devices typically use externally connected power sources such as electrical outlets or USBs. Wireless speakers use a battery power source.

  107. Which network device is used to ensure that each server, providing the same service on a network, is used as much as the others on that network?

    • load balancer
    • router
    • client
    • wireless access point
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      Specifically, a load balancer is used to ensure that each server providing the same service on a network is used as much as the others on that network. A router routes data between different networks. Client is the term used to describe hosts (end devices) on a network that accesses servers. A wireless access point enables hosts to connect to a wireless network.

  108. A technician is building a gaming computer with a PCIex16 graphics card. The graphics card requires 100 watts of power to run. How will this power be supplied?

    • from the PCIe slot on the motherboard
    • from the AGP slot on the motherboard
    • from the PCIe slot on the motherboard, together with a separate PCIe power connector from the power supply
    • from the PCIe power connector from the power supply
      Answers Explanation & Hints:

      PCIe can supply up to 25 watts of power to each slot. A graphics card can supply up to 75 watts. For potent graphics cards, an additional 75 watts can be supplied by a PCIe power connector from the power supply.

  109. Match the Wi-Fi standard with the maximum supported speed.

    ITE 8 IT Essentials 8 – IT Essentials A+ 220-1001 Certification Practice Exam Answers 04
    ITE 8 IT Essentials 8 – IT Essentials A+ 220-1001 Certification Practice Exam Answers 04

    Answers Explanation & Hints:

  110. While a user is working on a spreadsheet, the computer reboots. What are two components that could cause this issue? (Choose two.)

    • CPU
    • power supply
    • ROM
    • BIOS
    • wireless NIC
    • RAID
  111. While a user is working on a spreadsheet, the computer reboots. What are two components that could cause this issue? (Choose two.)

    • CPU
    • power supply
    • motherboard
    • BIOS
    • wireless NIC
    • RAID
  112. After continuous morning use, a computer suddenly reboots without the intervention of the user. What are the two most likely hardware parts that could cause this problem? (Choose two.)

    • CPU
    • power supply
    • hard drive
    • wireless NIC
    • ROM
    • BIOS
  113. After continuous morning use, a computer suddenly reboots without the intervention of the user. What are the two most likely hardware parts that could cause this problem? (Choose two.)

    • CPU
    • power supply
    • display port or display
    • BIOS
    • wireless NIC
    • RAID
  114. After continuous morning use, a computer suddenly reboots without the intervention of the user. What are the two most likely hardware parts that could cause this problem? (Choose two.)

    • CPU
    • power supply
    • surge strip
    • BIOS
    • wireless NIC
    • RAID
  115. A technician has been called in to investigate a problem with the computer rebooting randomly throughout the day. What two pieces of hardware could cause this problem? (Choose two.)

    • CPU
    • power supply
    • surge strip
    • BIOS
    • wireless NIC
    • RAID
  116. For two days in a row, a user has noticed that the computer reboots several times before it eventually starts. What are two suspect components? (Choose two.)

    • CPU
    • power supply
    • BIOS
    • motherboard
    • ROM
    • wireless NIC
  117. While a user is working on a spreadsheet, the computer reboots. What are two components that could cause this issue? (Choose two.)

    • CPU
    • power supply
    • ROM
    • motherboard
    • wireless NIC
    • BIOS
  118. While a user is working on a spreadsheet, the computer reboots. What are two components that could cause this issue? (Choose two.)

    • CPU
    • power supply
    • motherboard
    • display port or display
    • surge strip
    • hard drive
  119. After continuous morning use, a computer suddenly reboots without the intervention of the user. What are the two most likely hardware parts that could cause this problem? (Choose two.)

    • CPU
    • power supply
    • hard drive
    • surge strip
    • RAID
    • display port or display
  120. A technician is setting up a server that requires two connections between the client and the server, one for commands and replies, the other for the actual transfer of files. What type of server will accomplish this task?

    • FTP server
    • print server
    • DNS server
    • web server
  121. A network analyst is setting up a server that uses a store-and-forward method of sending, storing, and retrieving electronic messages across a network. What type of server is the analyst setting up?

    • email server
    • FTP server
    • print server
    • web server
  122. A manager works remotely and needs to access classified information on the web servers within the company head office. What type of server uses the secure HTTP (HTTPS) for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.

    • web server
    • print server
    • DNS server
    • FTP server
  123. A network administrator in a corporate headquarters office is setting up a new laptop for a new employee. What type of service will provide an IP address for the new device?

    • DHCP
    • FTP server
    • print server
    • web server
  124. A technician is setting up an environment where popular and frequently accessed web pages are stored locally on the internal network. What type of server will accomplish this task?

    • proxy server
    • print server
    • DNS server
    • FTP server
  125. A technician is setting up an environment where popular and frequently accessed web pages are stored locally on the internal network. What type of server will accomplish this task?

    • proxy server
    • DHCP
    • DNS server
    • print server
  126. A user needs to connect to Cisco.com but does not know the IP address for this website. What type of server will translate the website name into an IP address?

    • DNS server
    • DHCP
    • print server
    • FTP server
  127. An administrator is setting up a framework to support access control on a network device. What type of server is able to control those who are permitted to access a network and track what actions they perform while accessing the network?

    • authentication server
    • DHCP
    • DNS server
    • print server
  128. A company is setting up one new laser printer on every floor. What type of server will store the print jobs in a queue and then spool them to the device when it is ready?

    • print server
    • DHCP
    • DNS server
    • FTP server
  129. What network service controls those who are permitted to access a network, what they can do while they are there, and track what actions they perform while accessing the network?

    • AAA
    • DHCP
    • DNS server
    • print server
  130. A technician is searching through a storage locker and finds an access point. What is the purpose of this device?

    • It uses radio waves to provide network access to wireless devices.
    • It is an all-in-one security appliance that includes IDS/IPS functionality as well as stateful firewall services.
    • It is placed between two or more networks and protects data and equipment from unauthorized access.
    • It connects networks and forwards traffic to remote networks by using IP addressing information.
  131. A technician is searching through a storage locker and finds a cloud-based network controller. What is the purpose of this device?

    • It is a device that allows a network administrator to manage many remote networking devices from a central location.
    • It is placed between two or more networks and protects data and equipment from unauthorized access.
    • It connects networks and forwards traffic to remote networks by using IP addressing information.
    • It uses radio waves to provide network access to wireless devices.
  132. A technician is searching through a storage locker and finds a router. What is the purpose of this device?

    • It connects networks and forwards traffic to remote networks by using IP addressing information.
    • It is an all-in-one security appliance that includes IDS/IPS functionality as well as stateful firewall services.
    • It is placed between two or more networks and protects data and equipment from unauthorized access.
    • It uses radio waves to provide network access to wireless devices.
  133. A technician is searching through a storage locker and finds a firewall. What is the purpose of this device?

    • It is placed between two or more networks and protects data and equipment from unauthorized access.
    • It is an all-in-one security appliance that includes IDS/IPS functionality as well as stateful firewall services.
    • It connects multiple end devices and can be configured for VLANs and port security.
    • It is a device whose sole purpose is to connect end devices and to microsegment a LAN.
  134. A technician is searching through a storage locker and finds an Ethernet NIC. What is the purpose of this device?

    • It is needed to connect a computer to a wired local-area network.
    • It uses radio waves to provide network access to wireless devices.
    • It is a device whose sole purpose is to connect end devices and to microsegment a LAN.
    • It connects networks and forwards traffic to remote networks by using IP addressing information.
  135. A technician is searching through a storage locker and finds a Cisco ASA 5505-X (UTM). What is the purpose of this device?

    • It is an all-in-one security appliance that includes IDS/IPS functionality as well as stateful firewall services.
    • It is a device whose sole purpose is to connect end devices and to microsegment a LAN.
    • It connects multiple end devices and can be configured for VLANs and port security.
    • It uses radio waves to provide network access to wireless devices.
  136. A technician is searching through a storage locker and finds a wireless NIC. What is the purpose of this device?

    • It is needed to connect a computer or smart device to an 802.11 network.
    • It uses radio waves to provide network access to wireless devices.
    • It is a device whose sole purpose is to connect end devices and to microsegment a LAN.
    • It connects networks and forwards traffic to remote networks by using IP addressing information.
  137. A technician is searching through a storage locker and finds a repeater. What is the purpose of this device?

    • It is used to regenerate weak signals to extend the distance a signal can travel.
    • It uses radio waves to provide network access to wireless devices.
    • It is a device whose sole purpose is to connect end devices and to microsegment a LAN.
    • It connects networks and forwards traffic to remote networks by using IP addressing information.
  138. A technician is searching through a storage locker and finds a patch panel. What is the purpose of this device?

    • It provides a wired or wireless connection between end devices, switches, and routers and in some cases, can regenerate weak signals.
    • It is a device whose sole purpose is to connect end devices and to microsegment a LAN.
    • It connects multiple end devices and can be configured for VLANs and port security.
    • It uses radio waves to provide network access to wireless devices.
  139. A technician is searching through a storage locker and finds a hub. What is the purpose of this device?

    • It is a legacy device that connects end devices and where traffic from one connected device floods out to every other connected device.
    • It uses radio waves to provide network access to wireless devices.
    • It is a device whose sole purpose is to connect end devices and to microsegment a LAN.
    • It connects networks and forwards traffic to remote networks by using IP addressing information.
  140. A school is installing a new shared printer but the printer is not showing up on the list of available printers. What should the technician do to resolve the issue?

    • Manually add the printer IP address.
    • Reset the page counter.
    • Replace the pickup roller.
    • Configure the printer for duplex printing.
    • Power cycle the printer.
  141. A school is installing a new shared printer but the printer is not showing up on the list of available printers. What should the technician do to resolve the issue?

    • Manually add the printer IP address.
    • Reset the page counter.
    • Install a USB hub.
    • Connect the printer using wireless.
    • Check the vibration of the crystals.
  142. Employees are complaining that they send print jobs to a newly installed printer but the print jobs never print. What should the technician do to resolve the issue?

    • The printer is connected to the wrong port. Modify the port.
    • Check the vibration of the crystals.
    • Install a USB hub.
    • Connect the printer using wireless.
    • Reset the page counter.
  143. Users have noticed that the colors on their printed documents are different from the colors that they see on their computer screens. What should the technician do to resolve the issue?

    • Calibrate the printer.
    • Install a USB hub.
    • Check the vibration of the crystals.
    • Connect the printer using wireless.
    • Reset the page counter.
  144. A technician has just completed a preventive maintenance on the department printer. Users are now complaining that the printer is no longer available. What should the technician do to resolve the issue?

    • Check that the printer is plugged into a power source.
    • Install a USB hub.
    • Check the vibration of the crystals.
    • Connect the printer using wireless.
    • Reset the page counter.
  145. A technician has just completed a preventive maintenance on the department printer. Users are now complaining that the printer is no longer available. What should the technician do to resolve the issue?

    • Check that the printer is plugged into a power source.
    • Update the OS.
    • Check the vibration of the crystals.
    • Install a USB hub.
    • Reset the page counter.
  146. Students who use the same printer are complaining that recently printed documents contain unknown characters. What should the technician do to resolve the issue?

    • Re-install the printer driver.
    • Power cycle the printer.
    • Check the vibration of the crystals.
    • Install a USB hub.
    • Reset the page counter.
  147. All documents printed by the laser printer in the branch office have ghost or shadow images appearing on the paper. What should the technician do to resolve the issue?

    • Replace the drum.
    • Configure the printer for duplex printing.
    • Update the BIOS.
    • Update the OS.
    • Connect the printer using wireless.
  148. An office assistant in a law firm is trying to print many large legal documents but is getting “memory overload” error messages from the printer. What should the technician do to resolve the issue?

    • Add more memory to the printer.
    • Replace the pickup roller.
    • Update the BIOS.
    • Update the OS.
    • Connect the printer using wireless.
  149. A reporter is trying to print several high resolution photographs but the color laser printer is going extremely slowly. What should the technician do to resolve the issue?

    • Add more RAM to the printer.
    • Replace the pickup roller.
    • Update the BIOS.
    • Update the OS.
    • Connect the printer using wireless.
  150. A receptionist is complaining about the following printer issue: The print queue seems to be functioning properly, but the printer does not print. What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

    • There is a bad cable connection.
    • The printer has an error such as out of paper, out of toner, or paper jam.
    • The print queue is overloaded.
    • The printer does not have enough RAM.
    • The printer lid has not been closed securely.
  151. A photographer is complaining about the following printer issue: The printer issues a “Document failed to print” message. What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

    • A cable is loose or disconnected.
    • The printer is no longer shared.
    • The paper tray is flimsy.
    • The print queue is overloaded.
    • The printer lid has not been closed securely.
  152. A reporter is complaining about the following printer issue: The paper jams when the printer is printing. What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

    • The printer could be dirty.
    • The humidity could be high and that causes the paper to stick together.
    • The laser printer is emitting too much radiation.
    • The printer does not have enough RAM.
    • The print queue is overloaded.
  153. A manager is complaining about the following printer issue: The printer is printing incorrect colors. What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

    • The print heads might need to be cleaned and calibrated.
    • An incorrect cartridge could be installed.
    • The printer is using the wrong cable.
    • The print queue is overloaded.
    • The printer lid has not been closed securely.
  154. A technician is complaining about the following printer issue: The print appears faded on the paper. What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

    • The toner cartridge is low.
    • The paper might be incompatible with the printer.
    • The wrong printer type has been selected.
    • The printer does not have enough RAM.
    • The print queue is overloaded.
  155. A librarian is complaining about the following printer issue: The printer control panel displays no image. What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

    • The contrast of the screen may be set too low.
    • The printer is not turned on.
    • The room temperature is above normal.
    • The print queue is overloaded.
    • The printer lid has not been closed securely.
  156. A teacher is complaining about the following printer issue: The paper is creased after printing. What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

    • The paper-feed tray might not be firmly adjusted against the edges of the printer.
    • The paper might be loaded incorrectly.
    • Print jobs are being sent to the wrong printer.
    • The wrong printer type has been selected.
    • The laser printer is emitting too much radiation.
  157. A receptionist is complaining about the following printer issue: The print queue seems to be functioning properly, but the printer does not print. What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

    • There is a bad cable connection.
    • The printer has an error such as out of paper, out of toner, or paper jam.
    • The print queue is overloaded.
    • A test page was never printed.
    • The wrong printer type has been selected.
  158. A photographer is complaining about the following printer issue: The paper is not being fed into the printer. What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

    • The paper may be wrinkled.
    • The printer could be set to print to a different paper size than is currently loaded.
    • The paper tray is flimsy.
    • A test page was never printed.
    • The wrong printer type has been selected.
  159. A reporter is complaining about the following printer issue: The printer is printing unknown characters. What are two possible causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

    • The wrong or an outdated printer driver is installed.
    • The printer has a loose connection.
    • The laser printer is emitting too much radiation.
    • A test page was never printed.
    • The wrong printer type has been selected.
  160. While a technician is installing a printer, the technician hears a loud clicking noise. Which device should the technician check first?

    • hard drive
    • RAM
    • optical drive
    • monitor
  161. While a technician is installing a printer, the technician hears a loud clicking noise. Which device should the technician check first?

    • hard drive
    • sound card
    • optical drive
    • monitor
  162. While working in a computer training room, the technician notices that one computer emits a loud clicking noise. Which device should the technician check first?

    • hard drive
    • sound card
    • optical drive
    • monitor
  163. While working in a computer training room, the technician notices that one computer emits a loud clicking noise. Which device should the technician check first?

    • hard drive
    • internal speaker
    • optical drive
    • monitor
  164. While working in a computer training room, the technician notices that one computer emits a loud clicking noise. Which device should the technician check first?

    • hard drive
    • internal speaker
    • motherboard
    • CPU fan
  165. Every time a user turns on the computer in the morning, the user hears a loud clicking noise. Which device should the technician check first?

    • hard drive
    • internal speaker
    • motherboard
    • CPU fan
  166. Every time a user turns on the computer in the morning, the user hears a loud clicking noise. Which device should the technician check first?

    • hard drive
    • optical drive
    • CPU fan
    • CPU
  167. When a co-worker steps into another office, the co-worker notices that the computer is making a loud clicking noise and asks about it. The technician is contacted to investigate. Which device should the technician check first?

    • hard drive
    • monitor
    • CPU fan
    • CPU
  168. When a user turns on a workstation, the screen displays an “Invalid Boot Disk” error. The user calls the help desk. Which device should the technician check first?

    • hard drive
    • power supply
    • CPU fan
    • CPU
  169. When a user turns on a workstation, the screen displays an “Invalid Boot Disk” error. The user calls the help desk. Which device should the technician check first?

    • hard drive
    • motherboard
    • CPU fan
    • CPU
  170. A user reports that a drive is no longer there. The technician asks the user to demonstrate the problem. Within the application, the user demonstrates that the drive, that was present in the save options yesterday, is now no longer an option. What should the technician do to see if the drive is recognized by the operating system?

    • Use Device Manager.
    • Check the Startup folder.
    • Bring up a command prompt and type ipconfig.
    • Swap the data cables of the mechanical drive and the SSD.
  171. A computer has two mechanical hard drives. The second drive (D:) is used for data storage. When trying to save an email attachment to the local hard drive, the user notices that the D: drive is not an option. What should the technician do to see if the drive is recognized by the operating system?

    • Use File Explorer.
    • Bring up a command prompt and type ipconfig.
    • Open a web browser and type the following: http://127.0.0.1. Verify if both drives appear in the list.
    • Swap the data cables of the mechanical drive and the SSD.
  172. A user reports that a drive is no longer there. The technician asks the user to demonstrate the problem. Within the application, the user demonstrates that the drive, that was present in the save options yesterday, is now no longer an option. What should the technician do to see if the drive is recognized by the operating system?

    • Use Device Manager.
    • Boot into UEFI/BIOS and see if the drive appears.
    • Open a web browser and type the following: http://127.0.0.1. Verify if both drives appear in the list.
    • Bring up a command prompt and type ipconfig.
  173. A laptop has an NVMe drive (C:) and a mechanical hard drive (D:). When the user tries to save a spreadsheet to the D: drive, the user notices that the D: drive is not there. What should the technician do to see if the drive is recognized by the operating system?

    • Use the Disk Management Control Panel.
    • Open a web browser and type the following: http://127.0.0.1. Verify if both drives appear in the list.
    • Bring up a command prompt and type ipconfig.
    • Swap the data cables of the mechanical drive and the SSD.
  174. A computer has an SSD for the operating system and applications and uses another mechanical hard drive for data storage. The user reports that data can no longer be saved to the mechanical hard drive. What should the technician do to see if the drive is recognized by the operating system?

    • Use Device Manager.
    • Remove the drive and attach it to the SATA port used by the SSD. Reboot the computer and see if the drive is recognized.
    • Open a web browser and type the following: http://127.0.0.1. Verify if both drives appear in the list.
    • Bring up a command prompt and type ipconfig.
  175. A laptop has an NVMe drive (C:) and a mechanical hard drive (D:). When the user tries to save a spreadsheet to the D: drive, the user notices that the D: drive is not there. What should the technician do to see if the drive is recognized by the operating system?

    • Use the Disk Management Control Panel.
    • Determine if the hard drive service is set to start automatically.
    • Bring up a command prompt and type ipconfig.
    • Swap the data cables of the mechanical drive and the SSD.
  176. A user reports that a drive is no longer there. The technician asks the user to demonstrate the problem. Within the application, the user demonstrates that the drive, that was present in the save options yesterday, is now no longer an option. What should the technician do to see if the drive is recognized by the operating system?

    • Use File Explorer.
    • Remove the drive and attach it to the SATA port used by the SSD. Reboot the computer and see if the drive is recognized.
    • Open a web browser and type the following: http://127.0.0.1. Verify if both drives appear in the list.
    • Bring up a command prompt and type ipconfig.
  177. A user reports that a drive is no longer there. The technician asks the user to demonstrate the problem. Within the application, the user demonstrates that the drive, that was present in the save options yesterday, is now no longer an option. What should the technician do to see if the drive is recognized by the operating system?

    • Use the Disk Management Control Panel.
    • Use the Msconfig utility.
    • Bring up a command prompt and type ipconfig.
    • Swap the data cables of the mechanical drive and the SSD.
  178. A computer has two mechanical hard drives. The second drive (D:) is used for data storage. When trying to save an email attachment to the local hard drive, the user notices that the D: drive is not an option. What should the technician do to see if the drive is recognized by the operating system?

    • Use File Explorer.
    • Bring up a command prompt and type ipconfig.
    • Swap the data cables of the mechanical drive and the SSD.
    • Remove the drive and attach it to the SATA port used by the SSD. Reboot the computer and see if the drive is recognized.
  179. A user reports that a drive is no longer there. The technician asks the user to demonstrate the problem. Within the application, the user demonstrates that the drive, that was present in the save options yesterday, is now no longer an option. What should the technician do to see if the drive is recognized by the operating system?

    • Use Device Manager.
    • Check the Startup folder.
    • Swap the data cables of the mechanical drive and the SSD.
    • Remove the drive and attach it to the SATA port used by the SSD. Reboot the computer and see if the drive is recognized.
  180. A technician is working on a laptop and an error message about decryption appears when opening an email. What is a possible solution for this situation?

    • Install an appropriate certificate.
    • Check the display settings.
    • Check the fan on the GPU.
    • Ensure that Wi-Fi is turned off.
  181. A technician is working on a laptop and an error message about decryption appears when opening an email. What is a possible solution for this situation?

    • Install an appropriate certificate.
    • Check the screen refresh rate.
    • Check the fan on the GPU.
    • Ensure that Wi-Fi is turned off.
  182. A technician is working on a laptop and an error message about decryption appears when opening an email. What is a possible solution for this situation?

    • Install an appropriate certificate.
    • Replace the digitizer.
    • Check the fan on the GPU.
    • Ensure that Wi-Fi is turned off.
  183. A technician is working on a laptop and an error message about decryption appears when opening an email. What is a possible solution for this situation?

    • Install an appropriate certificate.
    • Update all security apps.
    • Check the fan on the GPU.
    • Ensure that Wi-Fi is turned off.
  184. A technician is working on a laptop and a key on the keyboard is not responding as it should. What is a possible solution for this situation?

    • Clean with compressed air.
    • Update all security apps.
    • Check the fan on the GPU.
    • Ensure that Wi-Fi is turned off.
  185. A technician is working on a laptop and a key on the keyboard is not responding as it should. What is a possible solution for this situation?

    • Clean with compressed air.
    • Ensure that Bluetooth is not activated.
    • Recharge the battery.
    • Check the display settings.
  186. A technician is working on a laptop and GPS is not functioning. What is a possible solution for this situation?

    • Verify that airplane mode is not activated.
    • Ensure that Bluetooth is not activated.
    • Recharge the battery.
    • Check the display settings.
  187. A technician is working on a laptop and GPS is not functioning. What is a possible solution for this situation?

    • Verify that airplane mode is not activated.
    • Check the fan on the GPU.
    • Recharge the battery.
    • Check the display settings.
  188. A technician is working on a laptop and GPS is not functioning. What is a possible solution for this situation?

    • Verify the status of service.
    • Ensure that Wi-Fi is turned off.
    • Recharge the battery.
    • Check the display settings.
  189. A technician is working on a laptop and GPS is not functioning. What is a possible solution for this situation?

    • Verify the status of service.
    • Ensure that only one app is open at a time.
    • Recharge the battery.
    • Check the display settings.
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